Wreckonomics
umair haque
22533

This has certainly tempted me to delve further into the topic (and thanks to Paul B. and Manda Scott for giving me additional sources to explore). However, one line really jarred with me: “ The benefits of global trade went, more than 100%, to the super rich.” How is ‘more than 100%’ possible in this context? It’s like football coaches who, when interviewed after a losing match, say their team gave 150% effort — it’s not possible to give more than 100%! Unless, of course, my basic understanding of maths has missed the point, so please elaborate!

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