My response is about the gas drilling in Groningen (the Netherlands).
If the “No harm” principle also applies on the Dutch government, how can the Dutch government still have the right to permit the use of Groningen for gas drilling?
Clearly, the gas drilling damages private property of the inhabitants there.
The “No harm” principle forbids the use or permit of use of a territory when it damages private property of the people living in the area.
This is clearly happening in the gas drilling case, but still the Dutch government permits gas drilling in Groningen.