Sep 4, 2018 · 1 min read
Isn’t there a simpler take on this? Namely, that the artifacts of ’60s counter-culture & postmodernism generated a cultural transformation that was unsettling to a large demographic, and that it’s politically profitable to attract the attention of that demographic (and their descendants)?
After all, conspiracy theories on the right are quite anti-rationalist, and how does that really differ in effect from how postmodernism positioned itself relative to rationalism?
