So if 32 percent of slave marriages were broken because of slave owners selling husbands or wives, then the logical assumption is that the other 68 percent of those marriages were not broken as a result of people being sold.
Actually I did condemn the professor, if she really did do all she is accused by the author of…
Svetlana Voreskova

Without knowing the proportion of slaves who were allowed to get married this quote alone does not support D.

If, say, 90% of slaves were married then it does.

If, say, only 10% of slaves were married then it does not tell us much. We cannot simply assume that slave owners’ behaviour towards their unmarried slaves was the same as towards their married slaves. It is entirely possible that they were more likely to separate couples.

To really be able to answer D we also need to know the proportion of slaves who were married and the behaviour of slave owners toward their non married slaves. The data you give here is insufficient to give a definitive answer either way.

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