Sorry to double-post, but how is it illogical to equate historical denizens with modern day “illegals” in the context of comparing past immigration policies to current ones? The activity they engage in is exactly the same, and only the law has changed. What historical analogue were you referring to regarding a historical melting pot of “illegality”, if not denizens? All that aside, isn’t “illegal” simply a subcategory of “denizen”? How can it be illogical for me to equate two terms which are already equated by definition?