Right on! Now let’s take on math. Why do they get to claim the Pythagorean Theorem is deductively provable and there’s no point to empirically testing it? Zealots!
It seems you’ve skimmed the surface of economics just enough to willfully misunderstand it.
And also misrepresent it. For example, you cite a few economic laws including:
something must be produced before it can be desired
You then link to an article. But nearest thing article says is, “production precedes consumption.” This is a priori true. It is not possible to consume a thing that has not been produced. To claim otherwise is plainly incoherent.
For a layman, I’m pretty familiar with the various schools of economics, and I have never heard anything about desire following production. It’s nonsensical, and it’s all yours.